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| Master Applied Science Physics: MSBTE K Scheme MCQ Exam Guide with Answer |
Explore the world of Applied Science, focusing on Physics and Chemistry, through the K Scheme's Previous Year MCQ (Multiple Choice Questions) with the title '312308 Applied Science Physics & Chemistry.' Leveraging insights from the MSBTEallclear website, this resource provides valuable assistance for studying. Join us as we delve into the realm of science, using the support of MSBTEallclear to enhance our understanding and preparation for the K Scheme curriculum.
Sure, here's the introduction in a point-wise format:
Also Study: Applies Science Chemistry MCQ's with Answers
- Title: 312308 Applied Science Physics
- Focus: Physics within the realm of Applied Science
- Format: Previous Year MCQ (Multiple Choice Questions)
- Purpose: To aid in studying and preparation for the K Scheme curriculum
- Resource: Leveraging insights and assistance from the MSBTEallclear website
- Approach: Utilizing MCQs to enhance understanding and retention
- Objective: To provide a comprehensive study tool for students navigating the complexities of Applied Science in the K Scheme
- Benefits: Offers structured preparation and practice for students aiming to excel in their academic pursuits.
Unit - I Properties of matter and kinematics
1.1 Deforming Force and Restoring Force, Elasticity, Plasticity, Rigidity.
1.2 Stress and Strain and their types, elastic limit and Hooke's law, types of moduli of elasticity.
1.3 Stress -Strain diagram, Poisson's ratio, factors affecting elasticity
1.4 Newton’s laws of motion, and their applications.
1.5 Angular displacement, angular velocity, angular acceleration, three equations of angular motion,projectile motion, trajectory, range of projectile angle of projection,time of flight
1.6 Work, power and energy: potential energy, kinetic energy, work –energy principle.
1.1 Deforming Force and Restoring Force, Elasticity, Plasticity, Rigidity
1. Which of the following forces causes a change in shape or size of an object?
a) Gravitational force
b) Restoring force
c) Deforming force
d) Frictional force
Answer: c) Deforming force
Explanation: Deforming force causes a change in shape or size of an object.
2. What property represents the resistance of a material to deformation?
a) Rigidity
b) Ductility
c) Elasticity
d) Brittleness
Answer: c) Elasticity
Explanation: Elasticity refers to the ability of a material to return to its original shape after deformation.
3. The point beyond which a material undergoes permanent deformation is called:
a) Elastic limit
b) Plastic limit
c) Yield point
d) Fracture point
Answer: a) Elastic limit
Explanation: Elastic limit is the maximum stress a material can undergo without permanent deformation.
4. The modulus of elasticity that relates stress to strain in the direction perpendicular to the applied force is called:
a) Young's modulus
b) Bulk modulus
c) Shear modulus
d) Tensile modulus
Answer: b) Bulk modulus
Explanation: Bulk modulus measures the resistance of a material to uniform compression.
5. Which type of deformation occurs when a material does not return to its original shape after the deforming force is removed?
a) Elastic deformation
b) Plastic deformation
c) Elastic limit
d) Yield pointExplanation: Plastic deformation refers to permanent deformation that occurs beyond the elastic limit of a material.
1.2 Stress and Strain, Hooke's Law, Moduli of Elasticity
1. Hooke's law states that stress is directly proportional to:
a) Volume
b) Strain
c) Deformation
d) Elasticity
Answer: b) Strain
Explanation: Hooke's law states that stress is directly proportional to strain within the elastic limit.
2. The ratio of lateral strain to the longitudinal strain is known as:
a) Poisson's ratio
b) Young's modulus
c) Shear modulus
d) Bulk modulus
Answer: a) Poisson's ratio
Explanation: Poisson's ratio is the ratio of transverse strain to longitudinal strain.
3. The stress-strain curve for a material is used to determine its:
a) Elastic limit
b) Young's modulus
c) Ultimate tensile strength
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
Explanation: The stress-strain curve provides information about various mechanical properties of a material.
4. The maximum stress a material can withstand without failure is known as:
a) Yield strength
b) Ultimate tensile strength
c) Breaking strength
d) Elastic limit
Answer: b) Ultimate tensile strength
Explanation: Ultimate tensile strength is the maximum stress a material can withstand while being stretched or pulled before necking, which leads to failure.
5. If the stress applied to a material is less than the yield strength, the material will undergo:
a) Elastic deformation
b) Plastic deformation
c) No deformation
d) Breakage
Answer: a) Elastic deformation
Explanation: Elastic deformation occurs when stress is applied within the elastic limit of a material, causing reversible deformation.
1.3 Stress-Strain Diagram, Poisson's Ratio, Factors Affecting Elasticity
1. The slope of the stress-strain curve represents:
a) Young's modulus
b) Poisson's ratio
c) Bulk modulus
d) Shear modulus
Answer: a) Young's modulus
Explanation: Young's modulus is represented by the slope of the stress-strain curve within the elastic limit.
2. Poisson's ratio is defined as the ratio of:
a) Lateral strain to longitudinal strain
b) Longitudinal strain to lateral strain
c) Stress to strain
d) Strain to stress
Answer: a) Lateral strain to longitudinal strain
Explanation: Poisson's ratio represents the ratio of transverse strain to longitudinal strain when a material is stretched.
3. Which of the following factors affects the elasticity of a material?
a) Temperature
b) Density
c) Composition
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
Explanation: Temperature, density, and composition are among the factors that affect the elasticity of a material.
4. An increase in temperature usually causes materials to:
a) Become more elastic
b) Become less elastic
c) Remain unchanged
d) Become brittle
Answer: b) Become less elastic
Explanation: An increase in temperature typically reduces the elasticity of materials, making them less resistant to deformation.
5. Which factor does NOT affect the elasticity of a material?
a) Strain rate
b) Temperature
c) Composition
d) Density
Answer: d) Density
Explanation: Density does not directly affect the elasticity of a material.
1.4 Newton’s Laws of Motion and Their Applications
1. Newton's first law of motion is also known as the law of:
a) Inertia
b) Acceleration
c) Action and reaction
d) Force
Answer: a) Inertia
Explanation: Newton's first law states that an object at rest will remain at rest, and an object in motion will remain in motion unless acted upon by an external force, which is also known as the law of inertia.
2. According to Newton's second law of motion, force is equal to:
a) Mass times velocity
b) Mass times acceleration
c) Velocity divided by time
d) Acceleration divided by time
Answer: b) Mass times acceleration
Explanation: Newton's second law states that the force acting on an object is directly proportional to the acceleration produced, with the proportionality constant being the mass of the object.
3. Newton's third law of motion states that for every action, there is:
a) An equal reaction
b) An opposite reaction
c) A larger reaction
d) No reaction
Answer: b) An opposite reaction
Explanation: Newton's third law states that for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction.
4. Which law of motion explains the recoil of a gun when a bullet is fired?
a) Newton's first law
b) Newton's second law
c) Newton's third law
d) Law of gravitation
Answer: c) Newton's third law
Explanation: Newton's third law explains that the recoil of a gun is the reaction force generated when the bullet is fired.
5. The acceleration produced by a force is inversely proportional to the mass of the object. This statement represents which law of motion?
a) Newton's first law
b) Newton's second law
c) Newton's third law
d) None of the above
Answer: b) Newton's second law
Explanation: Newton's second law states that the acceleration produced by a force is directly proportional to the force and inversely proportional to the mass of the object.
1.5 Angular Displacement, Angular Velocity, Angular Acceleration, Three Equations of Angular Motion
1. Angular displacement is measured in:
a) Radians
b) Meters
c) Degrees
d) Seconds
Answer: a) Radians
Explanation: Angular displacement is typically measured in radians.
2. Angular velocity is defined as the rate of change of:
a) Linear displacement
b) Linear velocity
c) Angular displacement
d) Angular acceleration
Answer: c) Angular displacement
Explanation: Angular velocity is the rate of change of angular displacement with respect to time.
3. The angular acceleration of an object is:
a) Constant if angular velocity is constant
b) Constant if angular displacement is constant
c) Always zero
d) Dependent only on mass
Answer: a) Constant if angular velocity is constant
Explanation: If angular velocity is constant, angular acceleration is zero; otherwise, it's constant if angular velocity is changing.
4. The three equations of angular motion are analogous to the equations of:
a) Linear motion
b) Projectile motion
c) Circular motion
d) Simple harmonic motion
Answer: a) Linear motion
Explanation: The three equations of angular motion are similar to the equations of linear motion, but they apply to rotational motion.
5. In projectile motion, the trajectory followed by the projectile is:
a) Parabolic
b) Linear
c) Circular
d) Elliptical
Answer: a) Parabolic
Explanation: Projectile motion follows a parabolic trajectory under the influence of gravity.
1.6 Work, Power, and Energy: Potential Energy, Kinetic Energy, Work-Energy Principle
1. Potential energy is energy due to an object's:
a) Motion
b) Position
c) Temperature
d) Shape
Answer: b) Position
Explanation: Potential energy is energy associated with an object's position or configuration.
2. Kinetic energy depends on an object's:
a) Mass only
b) Velocity only
c) Both mass and velocity
d) Neither mass nor velocity
Answer: c) Both mass and velocity
Explanation: Kinetic energy depends on both the mass and the square of the velocity of an object.
3. The work-energy principle states that the work done on an object is equal to the:
a) Change in its velocity
b) Change in its kinetic energy
c) Change in its potential energy
d) Change in its mass
Answer: b) Change in its kinetic energy
Explanation: According to the work-energy principle, the work done on an object is equal to the change in its kinetic energy.
4. Power is defined as the rate at which:
a) Work is done
b) Energy is transferred
c) Velocity changes
d) Acceleration occurs
Answer: a) Work is done
Explanation: Power is the rate at which work is done or energy is transferred.
5. If the velocity of an object doubles, how does its kinetic energy change?
a) It doubles
b) It quadruples
c) It remains unchanged
d) It halves
Answer: b) It quadruples
Explanation: Kinetic energy is directly proportional to the square of the velocity, so if the velocity doubles, the kinetic energy quadruples.
Unit - II Waves and Oscillations
1.1 Sound Waves, Amplitude, Frequency, Time-Period, Wavelength, and Velocity of Wave
1. Sound waves are: a) Transverse waves b) Longitudinal waves c) Electromagnetic waves d) Mechanical waves
Answer: b) Longitudinal waves
Explanation: Sound waves are mechanical waves that propagate by compressing and rarefying the medium in the direction of wave motion.
2. The number of complete vibrations or cycles of a wave per unit time is called: a) Amplitude b) Frequency c) Wavelength d) Velocity
Answer: b) Frequency
Explanation: Frequency is the number of oscillations or cycles of a wave per unit time, measured in Hertz (Hz).
3.The time taken for one complete vibration or cycle of a wave is known as its: a) Amplitude b) Frequency c) Time-period d) Wavelength
Answer: c) Time-period
Explanation: Time-period is the time taken for one complete cycle of a wave.
4.The velocity of a wave is directly proportional to its: a) Frequency b) Amplitude c) Wavelength d) Time-period
Answer: c) Wavelength
Explanation: The velocity of a wave is directly proportional to its wavelength when frequency remains constant.
5.The relation between velocity, frequency, and wavelength of a wave is given by: a) Velocity = Frequency × Wavelength b) Velocity = Wavelength / Frequency c) Velocity = Frequency / Wavelength d) Velocity = Frequency + Wavelength
Answer: a) Velocity = Frequency × Wavelength
Explanation: The velocity of a wave is equal to the product of its frequency and wavelength.
1.2 Simple Harmonic Motion, Uniform Circular Motion as Simple Harmonic Motion, Equation of Simple Harmonic Motion, Phase of Simple Harmonic Motion
1. Simple Harmonic Motion (SHM) is characterized by: a) Constant acceleration b) Variable acceleration c) Constant velocity d) No acceleration
Answer: a) Constant acceleration
Explanation: In SHM, the acceleration of an object is directly proportional to its displacement from the mean position and directed towards it.
2. The equation of simple harmonic motion is given by: a) x = A cos(ωt) b) x = A sin(ωt) c) x = A tan(ωt) d) x = A sec(ωt)
Answer: a) x = A cos(ωt)
Explanation: In SHM, the displacement (x) of an object from its mean position is given by x =
3. A cos(ωt), where A is the amplitude and ω is the angular frequency.
Phase in simple harmonic motion represents: a) The position of the object at a specific time b) The angular frequency of the motion c) The amplitude of the motion d) The period of the motion
Answer: a) The position of the object at a specific time
Explanation: Phase in SHM represents the position of the object at a specific time in its oscillatory motion.
4. Uniform circular motion can be considered as a special case of simple harmonic motion when: a) The radius is zero b) The frequency is zero c) The amplitude is zero d) The angular displacement is small
Answer: d) The angular displacement is small
Explanation: When the angular displacement is small in uniform circular motion, it can be approximated as simple harmonic motion.
5. The restoring force in simple harmonic motion is: a) Proportional to velocity b) Proportional to acceleration c) Proportional to displacement d) Independent of displacement
Answer: c) Proportional to displacement
Explanation: In SHM, the restoring force acting on the object is directly proportional to its displacement from the mean position.
1.3 Resonance, Application of Resonance
1. Resonance occurs when the frequency of an external force matches the: a) Amplitude of the system b) Natural frequency of the system c) Phase of the system d) Velocity of the system
Answer: b) Natural frequency of the system
Explanation: Resonance occurs when an external force is applied at the natural frequency of the system, resulting in maximum vibration.
2. Which of the following phenomena is NOT an example of resonance? a) Breaking a wine glass with sound b) Swinging on a swing c) Tuning a guitar string d) Shattering a crystal with ultrasound
Answer: b) Swinging on a swing
Explanation: Swinging on a swing is an example of periodic motion but not resonance.
3. An application of resonance in engineering is: a) Tuning a radio receiver b) Heating food in a microwave oven c) Generating electricity in a hydroelectric dam d) Transporting goods using conveyor belts
Answer: a) Tuning a radio receiver
Explanation: Tuning a radio receiver involves adjusting its components to resonate at specific frequencies to receive radio signals.
1.4 Resonance Concept in Prehistoric Times, Concept of Different Frequencies (Mantras) Used to Ignite Different Chakras in the Body (IKS)
1. The concept of resonance in prehistoric times is evident in: a) Music b) Cave paintings c) Stone tools d) Ancient texts
Answer: a) Music
Explanation: The use of drums, flutes, and other musical instruments in prehistoric times indicates an understanding of resonance.
2. According to Indian Knowledge Systems (IKS), different frequencies (mantras) are believed to ignite different chakras in the body. Which chakra is associated with the frequency of 432 Hz? a) Root chakra b) Heart chakra c) Third eye chakra d) Crown chakra
Answer: c) Third eye chakra
Explanation: In IKS, the frequency of 432 Hz is associated with the third eye chakra, which is believed to enhance intuition and insight.
1.5 Ultrasonic Waves, Properties of Ultrasonic Waves
1. Ultrasonic waves have frequencies: a) Above 20,000 Hz b) Below 20 Hz c) Between 20 Hz and 20,000 Hz d) Exactly 20,000 Hz
Answer: a) Above 20,000 Hz
Explanation: Ultrasonic waves have frequencies above the audible range, which is typically above 20,000 Hz.
2. Ultrasonic waves are commonly used in: a) Medical imaging b) Cooking c) Communication d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
Explanation: Ultrasonic waves find applications in various fields including medical imaging (ultrasound), cooking (ultrasonic food processing), and communication (ultrasonic sensors).
1.6 Piezoelectric and Magnetostriction Method to Produce Ultrasonic Waves
1. The piezoelectric effect is the property of certain materials to: a) Produce electricity under pressure b) Produce pressure under electricity c) Produce ultrasonic waves under pressure d) Produce pressure under ultrasonic waves
Answer: a) Produce electricity under pressure
Explanation: The piezoelectric effect refers to the generation of electric charge in certain materials when subjected to mechanical stress.
2. Magnetostriction method involves the generation of ultrasonic waves through: a) Electric field b) Magnetic field c) Both electric and magnetic fields d) Neither electric nor magnetic fields
Answer: b) Magnetic field
Explanation: Magnetostriction involves the change in shape or dimensions of a material when subjected to a magnetic field, leading to the generation of ultrasonic waves.
1.7 Applications of Ultrasonic Waves
1. One of the applications of ultrasonic waves in medicine is: a) Cooking b) Cleaning c) Communication d) Construction
Answer: b) Cleaning
Explanation: Ultrasonic waves are used in ultrasonic cleaning for removing dirt and contaminants from surfaces.
2. Another application of ultrasonic waves is in: a) Microwave ovens b) Sonar systems c) X-ray machines d) MRI scanners
Answer: b) Sonar systems
Explanation: Ultrasonic waves are used in sonar systems for underwater navigation and detection of objects.
Unit - III Modern Physics (Photoelectricity , X rays, LASER and nanotechnology)
1.1 Planck’s Hypothesis, Properties of Photons
1. According to Planck’s hypothesis, energy is emitted or absorbed in discrete packets called:
a) Photons
b) Electrons
c) Quanta
d) Protons
Answer: c) Quanta
Explanation: Planck's hypothesis proposed that energy is emitted or absorbed in discrete packets called quanta.
2. Photons possess which of the following properties?
a) Mass and charge
b) Mass but no charge
c) Charge but no mass
d) Neither mass nor charge
Answer: d) Neither mass nor charge
Explanation: Photons are massless and chargeless particles that exhibit both wave-like and particle-like properties.
3.Which equation describes the relationship between the energy (E) and frequency (ν) of a photon?
a) E = mc^2
b) E = hf
c) E = h/λ
d) E = kT
Answer: b) E = hf
Explanation: The energy (E) of a photon is directly proportional to its frequency (ν), where h is Planck's constant and f is the frequency.
4.What is the minimum frequency of light required to eject photoelectrons from a metal surface?
a) Threshold frequency
b) Stopping frequency
c) Critical frequency
d) Resonance frequency
Answer: a) Threshold frequency
Explanation: The threshold frequency is the minimum frequency of light required to overcome the work function of a metal and eject photoelectrons.
5.The property of photons that exhibits both wave-like and particle-like behavior is known as:
a) Duality
b) Entanglement
c) Superposition
d) Interference
Answer: a) Duality
Explanation: The wave-particle duality of photons refers to their ability to exhibit both wave-like and particle-like behavior.
1.2 Photoelectric Effect: Threshold Frequency, Stopping Potential, Work Function, Characteristics of Photoelectric Effect, Einstein’s Photoelectric Equation
1.The photoelectric effect refers to the emission of:
a) Electrons from a metal surface
b) Photons from a light source
c) Neutrons from a nucleus
d) Protons from an atom
Answer: a) Electrons from a metal surface
Explanation: In the photoelectric effect, electrons are ejected from a metal surface when it is illuminated with light of sufficient frequency.
2.The minimum frequency of light required to eject photoelectrons is called the:
a) Threshold frequency
b) Stopping frequency
c) Critical frequency
d) Resonance frequenc
Answer: a) Threshold frequency
Explanation: The threshold frequency is the minimum frequency of light required to cause the photoelectric effect.
3.The maximum kinetic energy of ejected photoelectrons depends on the:
a) Intensity of incident light
b) Frequency of incident light
c) Velocity of incident light
d) Polarization of incident light
Answer: b) Frequency of incident light
Explanation: The maximum kinetic energy of ejected photoelectrons depends on the frequency of incident light, as described by Einstein's photoelectric equation.
4.Einstein's photoelectric equation relates the energy of photons to the:
a) Work function of the metal
b) Stopping potential
c) Threshold frequency
d) Speed of light
Answer: a) Work function of the metal
Explanation: Einstein's photoelectric equation relates the energy of photons to the work function of the metal and the kinetic energy of ejected photoelectrons.
5.The photoelectric effect supports the wave-particle duality of light, as it demonstrates that:
a) Light behaves only as a wave
b) Light behaves only as a particle
c) Light behaves as both a wave and a particle
d) Light behaves as neither a wave nor a particle
Answer: c) Light behaves as both a wave and a particle
Explanation: The photoelectric effect provides evidence for the dual nature of light, as it exhibits both wave-like and particle-like properties.
1.3 Photoelectric Cell and LDR: Principle, Working, and Applications
1.A photoelectric cell converts:
a) Light energy into electrical energy
b) Electrical energy into light energy
c) Mechanical energy into electrical energy
d) Electrical energy into mechanical energy
Answer: a) Light energy into electrical energy
Explanation: A photoelectric cell converts incident light energy into electrical energy.
2.The principle of operation of a photoelectric cell is based on the:
a) Photoelectric effect
b) Photoelectric equation
c) Planck’s hypothesis
d) Doppler effect
Answer: a) Photoelectric effect
Explanation: A photoelectric cell operates based on the photoelectric effect, where incident light causes the emission of photoelectrons.
3.Light-dependent resistors (LDRs) exhibit a decrease in resistance with an increase in:
a) Voltage
b) Temperature
c) Intensity of light
d) Frequency of light
Answer: c) Intensity of light
Explanation: Light-dependent resistors (LDRs) exhibit a decrease in resistance when exposed to higher intensities of light.
4.The working of a photoelectric cell involves the generation of:
a) Heat energy
b) Electric current
c) Mechanical force
d) Sound waves
Answer: b) Electric current
Explanation: A photoelectric cell generates electric current when illuminated with light.
5.Photoelectric cells find applications in:
a) Solar panels
b) Digital cameras
c) Automatic doors
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
Explanation: Photoelectric cells have various applications including in solar panels, digital cameras, automatic doors, and more.
1.4 Production of X-rays by Modern Coolidge Tube, Properties, and Engineering Applications
1. X-rays are produced when high-speed electrons collide with:
a) Protons
b) Neutrons
c) Electrons
d) Nuclei
Answer: c) Electrons
Explanation: X-rays are produced when high-speed electrons are decelerated or stopped by a target material, typically a heavy metal such as tungsten.2.The production of X-rays in a Coolidge tube is based on:
a) Thermionic emission
b) Photoelectric effect
c) Compton scattering
d) Nuclear fission
Answer: a) Thermionic emission
Explanation: In a Coolidge tube, X-rays are produced by accelerating electrons towards a target material through thermionic emission.3.X-rays have properties similar to:
a) Gamma rays
b) Infrared radiation
c) Ultraviolet radiation
d) Microwave radiation
Answer: a) Gamma rays
Explanation: X-rays and gamma rays are both forms of electromagnetic radiation with high energy and similar properties.4.Which of the following is NOT a property of X-rays?
a) They can penetrate materials
b) They can cause ionization
c) They travel at the speed of light
d) They are reflected by surfaces
Answer: d) They are reflected by surfaces
Explanation: X-rays do not exhibit significant reflection by surfaces; instead, they penetrate materials and interact with atoms causing ionization.5.Engineering applications of X-rays include:
a) Medical imaging
b) Airport security scanning
c) Non-destructive testing of materials
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
Explanation: X-rays find applications in various fields including medical imaging, airport security scanning, and non-destructive testing of materials.
1.5 Laser: Properties, Absorption, Spontaneous and Stimulated Emission
1.Laser stands for:
a) Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation
b) Light Absorption by Stimulated Emission of Radiation
c) Light Amplification by Spontaneous Emission of Radiation
d) Light Absorption by Spontaneous Emission of Radiation
Answer: a) Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation
Explanation: Laser stands for Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation, which describes the process by which laser light is produced.2.Absorption of light by atoms results in the promotion of electrons to:
a) Higher energy levels
b) Lower energy levels
c) No change in energy levels
d) Neutral states
Answer: a) Higher energy levels
Explanation: Absorption of light by atoms results in the promotion of electrons to higher energy levels.3.Spontaneous emission occurs when:
a) Electrons are promoted to higher energy levels
b) Electrons return to lower energy levels without external stimulation
c) Electrons absorb photons from the environment
d) Electrons collide with other atoms
Answer: b) Electrons return to lower energy levels without external stimulation
Explanation: Spontaneous emission occurs when electrons in excited states return to lower energy levels without external stimulation.4.Stimulated emission is induced by:
a) Absorption of light
b) External electrical stimulation
c) External light with the same frequency
d) Nuclear reactions
Answer: c) External light with the same frequency
Explanation: Stimulated emission occurs when an incoming photon interacts with an excited atom, causing it to emit a second photon with the same frequency and phase.5.Laser light is:
a) Monochromatic
b) Coherent
c) Directional
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
Explanation: Laser light is characterized by its monochromaticity (single wavelength), coherence (phase alignment), and directionality (narrow beam).
1.6 Population Inversion, Active Medium, Optical Pumping, Three Energy Level System, He-Ne Laser
1. Population inversion occurs when:
a) More atoms are in the ground state than in the excited state
b) More atoms are in the excited state than in the ground state
c) All atoms are in the excited state
d) All atoms are in the ground state
Answer: b) More atoms are in the excited state than in the ground state
Explanation: Population inversion is a state where more atoms are in an excited energy state than in a lower energy state, which is necessary for laser action.
2. The active medium in a laser is responsible for:
a) Absorbing light
b) Emitting light
c) Amplifying light
d) Reflecting light
Answer: c) Amplifying light
Explanation: The active medium in a laser amplifies the light signal through the process of stimulated emission.
3. Optical pumping involves:
a) Heating the laser medium
b) Cooling the laser medium
c) Providing external energy to excite atoms to higher energy levels
d) Absorbing light from the environment
Answer: c) Providing external energy to excite atoms to higher energy levels
Explanation: Optical pumping involves providing external energy, typically in the form of light or electrical discharge, to excite atoms in the laser medium to higher energy levels.
4. In a three-energy level system, the metastable state is:
a) The lowest energy state
b) The highest energy state
c) The intermediate energy state
d) Not involved in the lasing process
Answer: c) The intermediate energy state
Explanation: In a three-energy level system, the metastable state is an intermediate energy state that facilitates population inversion.
5. The He-Ne laser emits light at a wavelength of approximately:
a) 532 nm
b) 633 nm
c) 1064 nm
d) 1550 nm
Answer: b) 633 nm
Explanation: The He-Ne laser emits light at a wavelength of approximately 633 nm, which corresponds to red light.
1.7 Engineering Applications of Laser
1. Laser is commonly used in:
a) Surgery
b) Haircutting
c) Cooking
d) Gardening
Answer: a) Surgery
Explanation: Laser is commonly used in various surgical procedures for cutting, cauterizing, and sealing tissues.2. Laser rangefinders are used for:
a) Measuring distance
b) Measuring temperature
c) Measuring pressure
d) Measuring weight
Answer: a) Measuring distance
Explanation: Laser rangefinders use laser beams to accurately measure distances, often in applications such as surveying and navigation.3. Laser printers use laser beams to:
a) Scan documents
b) Project images
c) Print text and images
d) Transmit data
Answer: c) Print text and images
Explanation: Laser printers use laser beams to transfer text and images onto paper through a process involving static electricity and toner particles.4. Laser welding is preferred over traditional welding methods for its:
a) Lower cost
b) Higher speed
c) Lower precision
d) Lower temperature
Answer: b) Higher speed
Explanation: Laser welding is preferred for its higher speed and precision compared to traditional welding methods.5. Laser communication systems are advantageous because they offer:
a) Greater security
b) Slower data transmission
c) Lower bandwidth
d) Higher latency
Answer: a) Greater security
Explanation: Laser communication systems offer greater security due to the narrow beam divergence of laser light, making interception more difficult.